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Nash
12-17-2007, 06:13 AM
Hi folks.

Let's assume that history turned out differently. Let's assume that Israel took a different course after the remnant returned to their homeland after they came back from Babylon.

Supposing that the Jews accepted Jesus Christ as the promised messiah, how would Jesus have been sacrificed?

Nash

watchman
12-17-2007, 01:50 PM
You are not factoring in the influence of the Devil. The Jews, in fact, did accept Jesus. Recall the occasion of his triumphal entry into Jerusalem the entire city turned out to hail him as the savior of Israel and the son of David. But a few days later when the mob arrested Jews, Christ asked them why they had turned up with torches and clubs as if tracking down a robber when he had been teaching publicly in the temple? He answered his own question by saying it was the hour of the authority of darkness.

The Devil was determined to terrify and torture Jesus in an effort to intimidate and dissuade him from serving as God's sacrificial lamb, perhaps to the point that Christ might even denounce Jehovah. Satan, of course, was concerned with saving his own neck by trying to prove his contention that he could turn all of God's creatures against him. So, that's why the Devil insidiously inflamed those under his influence to destroy Jesus.

Watchman

Jinnvisible
12-17-2007, 04:30 PM
Hi folks.

Let's assume that history turned out differently. Let's assume that Israel took a different course after the remnant returned to their homeland after they came back from Babylon.

Supposing that the Jews accepted Jesus Christ as the promised messiah, how would Jesus have been sacrificed?

Nash[/b]

The way events did occur according to prophesy does show clearly the nature of the spirit of this world. Christ`s example of faith, courage and all his other qualities of worthwhile aquisition is proved to the greatest extent through those events. It also meant that he was bound for greater glory than he had recieved before he acomplished his service to humanity.</span></div>
</span>

Nash
12-22-2007, 07:22 AM
Thanks Watchman and Jinn for responding. Very much appreciated!

The question was meant to not factor in the influence of Satan. I had been contemplating some biblical themes and I just wanted to ensure if there was even remotely a possibility that the devil wouldn&#39;t get involved in the death of Jesus.

Genesis 3:15 makes it clear, of course, that the Devil was to bruise Jesus "in the heel." The scripture indicates that Satan would have a hand in bruising Jesus. Consequently, that makes my question look silly - but I wanted to see if there was a way that Satan could slyly have woven himself out of the prophecy, even though we understand that Jehovah always says things which come true.

Watchman, you stated that the "Jews, in fact, did accept Jesus." I can&#39;t say that&#39;s 100% accurate. Some of them did, but not all. Besides, some of the 144,000 are not natural Jews, and we also have many Jews today who are still waiting for the Messiah. (Of course, they won&#39;t be able to prove his lineage, since it&#39;s my understanding that the genealogical records were destroyed back in 70.)

"The Devil was determined to terrify and torture Jesus in an effort to intimidate and dissuade him from serving as God&#39;s sacrificial lamb, perhaps to the point that Christ might even denounce Jehovah. Satan, of course, was concerned with saving his own neck by trying to prove his contention that he could turn all of God&#39;s creatures against him. So, that&#39;s why the Devil insidiously inflamed those under his influence to destroy Jesus."

Right. Which comes back to Genesis 3:15 as well as the entire account of Job and the question of Jehovah&#39;s sovereignty.

One of the issues I was thinking about was this: since, as you mention, Satan influenced many of the religious leaders to reject Jesus - with the consequence of Jehovah rejecting the Jews as his special nation - can we say, then, that Jehovah always knew that he would have to reject his chosen nation and select spiritual Israel to replace fleshly Israel?

Perhaps I am not understanding the prophecies, so correct me if I am wrong.

Another question I have been contemplating (I was going to start a different thread for it, but it is somewhat related to this topic): Since it was always Jehovah&#39;s purpose to take certain individuals to heaven*, was the number of individuals to be taken always 144,000, or did it only become 144,000 after spiritual Israel was formed? For whichever answer is provided, what is the scriptural proof?

* Understood because, upon the death of Jesus, the temple curtain was rent in two, signifying entrance into heaven.

Thanks again for your contributions to this thread, Watchman and Jinn.

Nash

Nash
01-01-2008, 08:40 AM
:)

Orchid
01-02-2008, 10:16 PM
You are not factoring in the influence of the Devil. The Jews, in fact, did accept Jesus. Recall the occasion of his triumphal entry into Jerusalem the entire city turned out to hail him as the savior of Israel and the son of David. But a few days later when the mob arrested Jews, Christ asked them why they had turned up with torches and clubs as if tracking down a robber when he had been teaching publicly in the temple? He answered his own question by saying it was the hour of the authority of darkness.

The Devil was determined to terrify and torture Jesus in an effort to intimidate and dissuade him from serving as God&#39;s sacrificial lamb, perhaps to the point that Christ might even denounce Jehovah. Satan, of course, was concerned with saving his own neck by trying to prove his contention that he could turn all of God&#39;s creatures against him. So, that&#39;s why the Devil insidiously inflamed those under his influence to destroy Jesus.

Watchman[/b]

Made so much sense! :D Thanks!