Question regarding John 14:9

[JB]

Hello everyone on this lovely Saturday.
I have a question about the verse seen in the title. Just so everyone knows I completly believe in the teachings of JW's, but have been doing some thinking towards the whole Trinity thing. While doing my preperations for the Come be my follower book I noticed the verse John 14:9. In that verse the word also is inserted in brackets. I was just looking for reasons why it was inserted there. Apparantly it is a big chapter on proving or disproving the trinity.

I would like to also add that everytime I read something that tries to prove the trinity somehow the holy spirt directs me to a place that disproves it. That same night I read Luke 9:34-36 where Jesus led Peter (and I think John) to the top of the mountain to hear Jehovah's voice for themselves.

So my ultimate question is about the insertion of also in John 14:9 and why the New World Translation commitee chose to put it there.

Thank you all,
Jason

[elihu]

Hi Jason and welcome,

i think for simple clarification is the reason why the WTO bracketed ALSO.

if we read the context of scriptures 7-11 we see that Christ was relating himself to his Father.
and this is taken out of context by Trinitarians in that they say that Christ was saying that he was the Father.

however in the context of scripture as a whole it is very evident that Christ never claimed to be HIs father or indeed claimed the name of his Father; Jehovah.

so what was he trying to get the disciples to understand?
if as trinitarians believe that he was also the Father why did he not say that
why did he not simply say I am the father?

however he said "believe me that i am in the Father and the Father is in me......."

go to John 17: 21
christ praying for believers

" that they all may be one, as you Father are in me, and i in you; that they also may be one in us, that the world may believe that you sent me"

so does that make the believers part of the trinity also?
of course not

But it is an emphasis of the relationship between Jehovah His Son and those who believe in Him and HIs Father.

so i think the answer is simple clarification of scripture.

hope this helps
Elihu

[elihu]

forgot to mention Roberts timely video

The Jesus is God - deception
go to the home page to view it.
he uses simple reasoning and scriptural logic to show that the idea that Jesus is God is really not a scriptural teaching.

elihu

[Tsaphah]

Hello everyone on this lovely Saturday.
I have a question about the verse seen in the title.

I was just looking for reasons why it was inserted there. Apparantly it is a big chapter on proving or disproving the trinity.

So my ultimate question is about the insertion of also in John 14:9 and why the New World Translation commitee chose to put it there.

Thank you all,
Jason

Hello JB,
I hope that what I have to say will help you in the future. The shell games of the trinitarians are many, and go way back in history, to the tower of Babel. It’s almost as old as the original lie. Let’s take a look at this event as a whole and discuss what was happening at that time with Jesus and the disciples. We have to go back to the beginning of John 13, starting in verse 1. It was during the evening meal, memorial passover that sets the scene. Jesus knew that the time was short, before he would be put to death as a human being. His role and mission that Jehovah had given him was nearly fulfilled.

In verse 13:16, while washing the feet of his disciples, he explains their position and his, in comparison. Now, if Jesus is God/God Almighty/Jehovah, why would he say “nor is one that is sent forth greater than the one that sent him.” (Jn 13:16b) Then, Jesus, while speaking to the disciples, refers to Psalm 41:9, for the fulfillment to be carried out by Judas. Modern trinitarians will attempt to use verse 13:19 to show that Jesus was God. It has only been recently, in the last 40 years or so, that they have capitalized the “I AM”, at the end. The term in the original Greek is, “ego eimi”. This term, can be literally translated into English as, ego = I, me, or my (the individual speaking) + eime = to be, to exist, to happen, or to be present. This common Greek term is used in many places in the Greek scriptures, but only in selected verses do the trinitarians capitalize it. Their feeble attempt is to relate it to Exodus 3:14-15. The problem with this is that they attempt to use the Greek Septuagint translation of the Hebrew. The Greek Septuagint uses the phrase, ego eimi, at Ex 3:14. Unfortunately for them, they don't say that it is "ego eime o on" (I am the one being). They then try to translate this again to "I AM", where it goes on to say, "the one being has sent me to you", not "I AM" has sent me to you.

Let's go back to John 14:9 for an explanation.

To present this in proper English sentence structure, it could be, “so that when it does occur, you may believe that “it is me”. Or, “I am the one.” He is identifying himself as the messiah, the one chosen. When challenged by any trinitarians, I ask for a scripture where Jesus says, “I am GOD”, “I am the Almighty God”, or “I am Jehovah.” There is no scripture, anywhere in the Bible that this occurs.

Here is where reasoning on the scriptures comes into place. Peter wrote about many of the things that Paul said or wrote to the congregations. Peter says, “Furthermore, consider the patience of our Lord as salvation, just as our beloved brother Paul according to the wisdom given him also wrote YOU, speaking about these things as he does also in all [his] letters. In them, however, are some things hard to understand, which the untaught and unsteady are twisting, as [they do] also the rest of the Scriptures, to their own destruction.” (2 Pe 3:15-16)

There are several other translations that render John 13:19 as;
“That way, when they do happen, you will believe that I am he.” (2001 Translation An American English Bible),
“so that when it does occur, you may believe that I am He.” (NAS ),
“you may believe that I am he.” (NRSV),
“you may have belief that I am he.” (BE ),
“you may believe that I am he.” (WE ),
“you may believe that I am he.” (Douay-Rheims),
“ye may believe that I am [he];” (Young's Literal Translation)

In John 13:31, it says that Jesus has gone out, into the night and he says, “Now the Son of man is glorified, and God is glorified in connection with him.” If he were God, why would he include both “Son of man” and God as being glorified? It does not make sense. In verse 33, “Little children, I am with you a little while longer.” What do you suppose that Greek term is? And, it isn't capitalized in the other translations that try to connect this with Jesus saying he is God.

Jesus is trying to explain that he will be going away for them. He is trying to be as kind as possible to them. He doesn't what to break their hearts by telling them outright that he is going to die a horrible death. He uses what are called euphemisms. They are substituted words such as an expression so substituted: “To pass away” is a euphemism for “to die.” This is why they all wondered where he was going, that they couldn't find him. (Jn 14:5) Jesus goes on to say that “HE” is the only way to receive salvation from permanent death.

Jesus then says, that they really haven't grasped who he really was, nor what his real role as messiah was to be. Philip still doesn't understand the circumstances and that is why he asks Jesus to show them the Father, God. Apparently, Peter, John, and James had related what had happened with them on the mountain. (Mt 17:1-9; Mr 9:2-8)

Finally, Jesus explains how he is just like his Father, Jehovah God. He is like his father because he does exactly the same things his father instructs him to do. Then he says that if they do as he does, they also will be like him. Was he promising that they also would be GOD? (Jn 14:15-21) To put this trinity lie to rest, read the many other scriptures, such as John 20:17, Acts 2:24, Rev 1:1, 6; 3:12.

Agapé,
Tsaphah